I've stated that many times. Actual violation of the law, for which [presently] there is no evidence, would be required.
Thank you. Can you further clarify this? What kind of law? Would violation of tax code count? Criminal law? Contract law? Misdemeanor? Jaywalking?
As to violation, is this on balance of probabilities, indictment, public opinion or do you require actual trial and conviction (which is beyond reasonable doubt for criminal wrongdoing)? Keep in mind, Nixon was indited but not convicted.