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Joined: Nov 2005
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"Federal Office Holders

The Constitution requires that members of the House and Senate fulfill three requirements:

All members of the House must be at least 25 years old, and members of the Senate must be at least 30 years old.
Members of the House must have been a U.S. citizen for at least seven years, and members of the Senate must have been a U.S. citizen for at least nine years.
They have to be an "inhabitant" of the state "when elected."
As a result, according to the Congressional Research Service, committing a crime cannot constitutionally disqualify someone from serving in Congress. And the state has no say in determining whether or not someone is qualified to serve in the House or Senate:

CRS: [S]ince a State does not have the authority to add qualifications for federal offices, the fact of conviction, even for a felony offense, could not be used to keep a candidate off of the ballot under State law either as a direct disqualification of convicted felons from holding or being a candidate for office, or as a disqualification of one who is no longer a “qualified elector” in the State. Once a person meets the three constitutional qualifications of age, citizenship and inhabitancy in the State when elected, that person, if duly elected, is constitutionally “qualified” to serve in Congress, even if a convicted felon.

Prison is not a bar to running for federal office, either. In 1798, Rep. Matthew Lyon ran for Congress from prison and won. He assumed his seat in Congress after serving four months in prison for "libeling" President John Adams. An effort was made to expel Lyon from the House, but it failed.

Ultimately, it is up to the House or Senate chamber to determine whether or not an elected official is qualified to serve if a challenge is raised."

http://www.factcheck.org/2008/11/felons-in-office/

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Originally Posted by Owain
It's in applying that definition in an area in which it is inapplicable.


This is an empty assertion.

Have you paused to consider that there might be other qualifications other than constitutional qualifications?

What I said is entirely reasonable, within accepted use norms, and conforming to dictionary definition. You on other hand latched to a specific definition, and keep insisting that I must have meant that one thing.

Lets pause here to consider. Did you really think "No you must have meant X when you said Y, and X is wrong" type of illogical retort would work?

If yes:
Originally Posted by Owain
It's in applying that definition in an area in which it is inapplicable.


I did not fill any applications. You are making stuff up.




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What you said is entirely reasonable as it applies to you. But you want to apply that standard to everyone based on no evidence.

Who does that?

Narcissists do that.


To the everlasting glory of the infantry...

Owain ab Arawn
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How does it feel when all of your arguments are taken behind a shed and shot?



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You'd know more about that than would I, I think.


To the everlasting glory of the infantry...

Owain ab Arawn
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Originally Posted by Owain
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Well, if you say so.


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